JESUS and
THE FATHER = ONE GOD?
Let me give you an example of what this article contains: “I am the
Creator and my son is the creation. I give my son full power under my authority
on earth to represent me. The son is not me and I am not him, but with our combine
understanding we are one. I am that I am
and he is who he is. Through him you will know me because we are one. He sits on the right
side of my throne. His name is, “Yeshua” (Jesus). Many will call my name,
“Yahweh.” (God). I am “Yahweh” and he is, “Yeshua.”
Now if I left it at that and I
was one of the greatest theologians in modern day, you might and I say that
lightly, you might believe what I said that, God and Jesus are two separate
beings. But people of intelligence are stubborn when it comes to going against
their own belief. Religious dogma gets in the way quickly and they try to turn
it around stating that I am some left wing nut with no merit and that I don’t
know what I am talking about. So, with that in mind, it is best to confirm and
affirm what I just said in the first paragraph by using scripture. Understand
that Judaism claims the separation and Christianity does not. Who is right? I
believe this article will clear that up.
Note: some of the text was written by another author and I put my own insertions and concurrence with the original
writer to give a continuity of the overall text article.
Someone may argue, "But,
didn’t Jesus say that He and his Father were one?
Yes, Jesus did say that. But
what did He mean by it? Did He mean that 1+1=1? Did He mean "one" in
number, or "one" in spirit and purpose? Obviously, He meant that they
were united in purpose and spirit. Here, again, our religious brethren must
resist the temptation to assign Christ’s statements to some nonsensical body of
mystical sayings.
God’s Word directs us to, "Come
now, and let us reason together, saith Yahweh…" (Isaiah
1:18). Also, remember “Toland’s” sage advice: "Reserve judgment on
whatever is uncertain and assent only to clear precepts." Mysticism
and mystery have no place whatsoever in a person’s belief structure. You cannot
honestly build a belief structure on a mystery. An honest man must remain
silent concerning a mystery, for the fact that it is a mystery to him proves
that he possesses no intelligent data on the subject.
Building on a mystery is like
shooting in the dark. Odds are greater than a million to one against you ever
hitting the target which you cannot see. Ministers who build on mystery are
shooting in the dark, and usually lying.
Jesus claimed that He and his
Father were one. To turn this alleged mystery into common sense, we only have
to read some related scriptures.
First, let’s examine the passage
in question by reading it in context.
John chapter 10:
My
Father,
which gave them to me, is greater than all; and no man is able to
pluck them out of my Father’s hand. I and my Father are one.
"There!" they say,
"See! He and his Father are ONE! Jesus and Yahweh are the same
person!" But, is that really what it says? In light of the verse preceding
it, would it be consistent?
Verse 29; says that the
Father gave disciples to Jesus. Jesus didn’t give them to
himself. Remember, give and take requires two parties: the giver, and the
taker. Also, Jesus says that Yahweh is GREATER than all.
Reason and common sense must
prevail lest we find ourselves lost in mindless, pagan mysticism. In the
incapacitated mind of the pagan, two can equal one, and three can equal one. In
fact, multiple gods can simultaneously be one god. Two, three, or 10,000 gods
can equal ONE god – as in Hinduism. This can happen in their minds because
their brains have been shoved into neutral. Their minds no longer seek logical
answers.
Christians are supposed to have
sound minds. What then? Are we to believe that Jesus was a dual god, like the
Roman god Janus? Was He saying that two equals one? No, of course not! He was
simply using a common form of expression that makes good sense unless taken out
of context. You can find such common expressions throughout the Bible.
For instance, John 17:
11 .…Holy Father, keep through
thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as
we.
21. That they all may be
one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may
be one in us…
22. And the glory which thou
gavest me I have given them: that they may be one, even as we are one:
In this case, the pagan might
envision Yahweh, Jesus, and the disciples ALL part of one big god. Which is not
the case.
Matthew 19:
…Have
you not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and
female, And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall
cleave to his wife: and they twain (two) shall be one
flesh? Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh…
One flesh? Literally? Of course
not! That’s absurd.
Galatians 3:
For
as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ. There is
neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither, male
or female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
Obviously, being "one"
with someone has no bearing on number. Therefore, it signifies something other
than quantity. Jesus was not claiming some kind of mystical identification as
Yahweh, any more than He was suggesting that all his disciples were only one
person. He only meant that they were one in purpose and authority. Don’t let
pagan nonsense confuse you. Use common sense and don’t complex the content of
what Jesus stated over and over throughout the New Testament concerning his
father.
Continuing in John 10:
Then
the Judeans took up stones again to stone him (Jesus). Jesus answered them,
Many good works have I showed you from my
Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Judeans answered him,
saying, “For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that
thou, being a man, makest thyself God.”
Now here we have an interesting
statement. The Judeans were accusing Jesus of the same thing the churches today
accuse Him of – namely, that He claimed to be God. The difference is that
today’s churches like it, and the Judeans hated it.
Remember, Jesus didn’t claim to
be Yahweh; He claimed to be "one" with him – an expression meaning to
share the same purpose or motivation. He then goes on to address the term
"god" itself. Jesus answered them:
…Is
it not written in your law (in Psalms 82:6), I (Yahweh) said, Ye are
gods?
Who "are gods?" Yahweh
originally said that to Israelites. Jesus was reminding the Judeans that Yahweh
had called their ancestors "gods." How could just mortal men be
"gods"?
If
he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the
scripture cannot be broken; ay ye of him (Jesus), whom the Father hath
sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am
the Son of God?
Obviously, the Israelites were
not supernatural gods. They were just "elohim" (powerful ones) in
their day. Jesus pointed out that if Yahweh had called their ancestors
"gods," then it certainly wasn’t blasphemy for Him to claim to be the Son of
God. Keep in mind that the Priest never stoned him because most caught on to
what Jesus meant.
If I
do not the works of my Father, believe me not. But if I do, though ye believe
not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the
Father is in me, and I in him (two persons; the Son was motivated by
the Father).
If those Judeans had been
listening they would have heard the meaning of "being one" with
someone. They would have also learned what the word "god"
("elohim" in Hebrew; "theos" in Greek) really meant. But,
most of the Pharisees weren’t listening, and neither are the churches today.
Besides, in several clear
passages, Jesus declares that He and Yahweh, together, equal TWO in number.
John 8:
15. Ye judge after the flesh; I
judge no man. And yet if I judge, my judgment is true: for I am not
alone, but I and the Father that sent me. It is also written in your law,
that the testimony of TWO men is true. I am one that
bear witness of myself, AND the Father that sent me beareth
witness of me (two witnesses). Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted
up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing
of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I
speak these things. And he that sent me is with me: the Father hath not
left me alone; for I do always those things that please him.
42. Jesus said unto them, If God
were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God;
neither came I of myself, but he sent me. Jesus answered, If I honor myself,
my honor is nothing: it is my Father that honoreth me…
Someone may still wonder,
"With all these scriptures showing clearly that Jesus and Yahweh are not
the same, how is it, then, that the idea came to be so wide-spread? And how is
it that so many people think the Bible actually teaches it? Why is it such a
popular doctrine if it’s so clearly wrong?"
Well, there are yet several
scriptures that we haven’t addressed. Also, our English versions of the Bible
have been translated (or rather miss-translated) to make certain scriptures
appear to say, at least on the face of them, that Yahweh himself became a
flesh-and-blood of man. Of course, it is easier to accept them that way if you
are already bias. But, at this point we must admit that someone who reads only
the English versions of the Bible could feasibly be led into that error
unknowingly.
Now, let’s start with John 17:
And
this is eonian life; that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus
Christ, whom thou hast sent. ("eonian life" = the spiritual awakening
given during this New Covenant age).
That "eonian life" is
described as an ability to "know the only true God
(Yahweh), AND Jesus Christ, whom Yahweh sent." Now, keep that point
squarely in your mind.
I
have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me
to do. And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory
which I had with thee before the world was. (KJV)
On the face of this one, it may
appear to be saying that Jesus lived WITH (along side) Yahweh before the earth
was created. However, if that were the case, this verse would also do great
violence to the theory that Jesus and Yahweh are one and the same. It would be
saying that Jesus and Yahweh were two beings.
But, as we unweave the confusion
of this verse, and translate it correctly, we see its actual meaning.
5. And now, O Father, glorify
thou me with (in addition to) your glory which I am sharing with you before (in
front of) the world. (Corrected; according to the Greek).
What Yahweh had already
accomplished through Jesus had been glorious. Now, Jesus was praying for
a greater glory to be accomplished in his death and rising to
immortality.
This verse does not say what the
KJV translators insinuated. When you read it correctly, it fits with the text
much better.
What did Jesus say?
Yahweh was glorified in Jesus as
a witness before all the world. Jesus had completed the work that He, as a
mortal, was created to do, and Jesus was now looking forward to a greater glory
(i.e. the expected glory of being raised to immortal life and ascending the
throne).
We are a word-controlled people.
People can be changed just by changing the meanings of words they use. If we
allow our words to be controlled, then we will be controlled.
The Bible is a very old
document. Even the English translation of the Bible is very old. To understand
this old document we must be very careful that we do not misuse its words. We
can’t ignore them, nor can we assume that others have been honest with them.
The WORDS are more important than gold! We should be at least as protective and
responsible over these words of life as we would that much gold. This requires
more than just casual reading from one of the many English versions.
In this case, just as in many
others, the sensible and logical conclusion is the right one, and we can
dispense with the so-called mystery.
John 1:
No
man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the
Father, he hath declared him.
Jesus declared Yahweh
to men. But, NO MAN has seen Yahweh. Now, don’t miss this important point.
Has any man seen Jesus? Yes, of
course.
Has any man seen Yahweh? No!
What, then, was Jesus? Was He
Yahweh? No, because men saw Jesus.
What was He then? John says He
was THE DECLARATION OF GOD (i.e. the LOGOS)!
John 17:
I
have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the
world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.
Jesus refers to Yahweh as
"Thee" and "Thou" – obviously not referring to himself.
Jesus says He had manifested the Father’s name (i.e. He displayed Yahweh’s
"name"; his "authority"). His Father gave Him authority to
represent Him. The representative cannot be the one
being represented!
The next passage in question is
John 14:
6. Jesus saith unto him, I am
the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me. If
ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye
know him, and have seen him.
We just read that no one had
seen the Father. Is this a contradiction?
If we accept the premise that
Jesus does not contradict himself, then He must be telling us something else.
Philip
saith unto him, Lord show us the Father, and it sufficeth us. Jesus saith unto
him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet has thou not known me, Philip?
He that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us
the Father?
Is Jesus contradicting himself?
Is He saying that men really HAVE seen Yahweh?
Now understand, I’m saying that
we can’t throw out any of these scriptures. If there appears to be a
contradiction, we must have enough faith in God’s Word to believe that the
error comes from man – not from Jesus. We must believe that the scriptures make
sense when we don’t misuse them. Therefore, contradictions come from erroneous
translations and/or interpretations – not from Jesus, nor the inspired Word of
God. So, we only need to find and correct the error that men have inserted.
Furthermore, to interpret the scriptures correctly, we should read them in
context which is very important when reading the bible. So, let’s see what else
is said in this passage.
Notice verse 10:
Believest
thou not that I am in the Father, …
Now wait a minute! Which is it?
Is He the Father? Or is He IN the Father? Obviously, being "in the
Father" is not the same as "being the Father." If Jesus WAS the
Father, wouldn’t he have said "I AM THE FATHER" rather than saying
"I am IN the Father"? If He was the Father, He missed a perfect
opportunity to clearly tell them who He was.
10. Believest thou not
that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? The words that I
speak unto you I speak NOT OF MYSELF: but the Father that dwelleth in
me, he doeth the works.
When He spoke of the Father He
spoke NOT OF HIMSELF! That’s what verse ten says! Now, that is
not hard to understand.
Again, in John 7, Jesus makes a
distinction between himself and Yahweh:
…My
doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me. If any man will do his
will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I
speak of myself.
Jesus’ doctrine was not his!
What did He mean by that? If Jesus was Yahweh, then He would have been saying
that the doctrine was not Yahweh’s! Whose, then, would it have been? Not
Jesus’! Not Yahweh’s! Could it have been, perhaps, Baal’s doctrine; or maybe
the serpent’s doctrine? Whose? Where might this impossible scenario take them?
I’ll tell you where it will lead the gullible. It’ll lead them right into
Judeo-Christianity (Jewish Christianity).
However, if Jesus was Yahweh’s
Son, then it all makes perfect sense. The Son got his doctrine from the Father.
The works and the words that flowed from Jesus were manifested words and works
of Yahweh. They were done in the Father’s name. They "declared" Yahweh
unto the world. They were the works and the words of the Father – manifested through
Jesus. That’s not to say that Jesus was the Father. Keep that straight! The
Father was in Jesus! Remember, no one has seen God. But, men
did see Jesus. Jesus was visible. They could touch Him. Many people saw Jesus.
But, the Father is invisible to man.
When Philip looked upon Jesus,
he was looking at AN IMAGE of the Father. An image…not in the physical
sense, but in the spiritual sense. Yahweh cannot be described in the
physical sense because He is not physical.
If God looked physically like
Jesus, then men could have looked upon Yahweh just as easily as they looked
upon Jesus. But they couldn’t! Jesus was the image of Yahweh in greater,
different ways than physical ways. Just remember: an image of a thing
is not the thing itself. Jesus was the image – not the Father himself.
Next, Hebrews 1:
God, who at sundry times and in
diverse manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in
these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed
heir of all things, through whom he also arranged the ages. Who being the
brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and
upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged
our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
Jesus was "the express
image" of his Father. An image of a thing is not the
thing itself. It is a reflection of the thing itself. Jesus reflected Yahweh.
II Corinthians 4:
3. But if our gospel be hid, it
is hid to them that are lost: In whom the god of this age hath blinded the
minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ,
who is the image of God, should shine unto them. (Jesus = image).
Colossians 1:
Giving
thanks unto the Father, which hath made us meet to be partakers of the inheritance
of the saints in light. Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and
hath translated us into the kingdom of his dear Son. In whom we have redemption
through his blood, even the forgiveness of sins: Who is the image of
the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation (Invisible means
incapable of being seen by the eye. Jesus is the visible image of the invisible
God). For in him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in
earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or
principalities, or powers: all things were created through (on account
of) him, and for him:
Again, the image of a thing is
NOT the thing itself.
Also, we must remember
that Adam shared the same status – that of being the
image of God. For that matter, WE TOO share that status, as sons of
God. Obviously, "being in the image of God" does not equate to
"being God."
"All things created"
(i.e. this universe, if you will) were created ultimately for the
Son who was to inherit all things. Yahweh created all things for Jesus so the
Son would inherit all things.
Now read verse 17:
And
he is preeminent in all things (referring to status, not time), and in him all
things consist. And He is the head of the body who is the beginning, the
firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have preeminence. For it
pleased the Father that in him should all fullness dwell;
It pleased the Father to place
all fullness in the person of Jesus. Jesus was like a vessel filled to the very
top. But you see, no matter how great an imagination you may have, you cannot
imagine a vessel large enough to contain all of Yahweh. Jesus could not contain
Him; Yahweh cannot be limited and contained in a vessel. The Father is
limitless and un-containable. Yet, all fullness was in Jesus.
Chapter 2:
For
in him (Jesus) dwelleth all the fullness of Godship bodily
(not "Godhead").
I Kings 8:27; II Chronicles 6:18
But will God in very deed dwell
with men on the earth? Behold, heaven and the heaven of heavens cannot
contain thee; how much less this house which I have built!
If heaven and earth cannot
contain Yahweh, then neither can the mortal body of a man. Jesus was filled
with Godship. However, the contents of a vessel is not the vessel itself. Jesus
was the vessel and the contents was of the godship of the Father. The word,
"Godhead," indicating a plurality of gods as rendered by the KJV
translators, is another misnomer – possibly a prejudice held over from the
pagan Roman concept of a "Forum of gods."
In I Timothy 3, we find a related
scripture which is often quoted to support the idea of a mysterious
"Godhead." I quote it below, correctly from the Greek:
And
without question, great is the wonder of godliness which (The
KJV wrongly inserts "God" here) was manifest in the flesh, justified
in spirit, witnessed by messengers, preached in nations, believed in the world
and received in glory."
This is not talking about God,
or a so-called "godhead." It is talking about "godliness"
or "holiness." Godliness was manifest in the flesh. The KJV translators
wrongly inserted "God" in the place of "which." They
completely perverted the meaning of this scripture. Translational anomalies
like this only serve to further confuse people. Translators should be more
responsible.
What is "The mystery
(wonder) of godliness?" It is the miracle of a man receiving
inspiration from God. The implanted desire to be godly is unnatural to man. It
is a miracle when God causes a man to desire godliness. This miracle, or
"mystery," is manifest in flesh when a man’s nature is turned – from
depravity, to godliness. In 2 Peter 1:3-4 we are told that we acquire the
"divine nature" (godliness) through gaining "the knowledge of
Him that hath called us to glory and virtue.
This is the wonder of godliness
among men.
Just remember these basic
premises:
An image of a thing is not the
thing itself.
The contents of a vessel is not the vessel itself.
A "full" vessel shows the limit of the vessel – not the limit of that
which fills the vessel.
The Creator is not the creation.
The Infinite is not finite.
The Eternal does not cease to exist.
The Father is not the Son.
"IN
THE NAME"
Yahweh’s Son, Jesus – the
Inheritor – had authority, in the name of the Father, over his inheritance.
Angels (messengers) also communicated Yahweh’s word to men. They spoke in
Yahweh’s name, too. But the churches admit that angels are not Yahweh. They
were expressions of Yahweh, to be sure. They spoke the word of Yahweh. They
commanded performance with the authority of Yahweh. They issued Yahweh’s
commands as if they were coming from Yahweh himself. BUT THEY WERE THE MESSAGE
CARRIERS – NOT THE MESSAGE SENDER! That is an important difference. Jesus,
also, spoke for Yahweh. He was the Message itself in flesh form. But let’s not
confuse the message (Jesus) with the message sender (Yahweh).
We see more of this direct
representation of Yahweh in Revelation 21:
9. And there came unto me one of
the seven angels…
The messenger (angel) was
talking to John. The conversation carries over into chapter 22:
6. And he (the messenger) said
unto me (John), These sayings are faithful and true: and the Lord God of
the holy prophets sent his angel
to show unto his servants the things which must shortly be done.
Behold, I come
quickly: (Who comes quickly? This messenger? NO. Yahweh! Yahweh
comes quickly. But the messenger is the one saying "I come quickly"):
blessed is he that keepeth the sayings of the prophecy of this book. And I John
saw these things, and heard them. And when I had heard and seen, I fell
down to worship before the feet of the messenger (angel) which showed
me these things. Then saith he unto me, See thou do it not: for
I am thy fellow servant, and of thy brethren the prophets, and of them which
keep the saying of this book: worship God.
Here’s a fellow servant, saying
"I come quickly"! John thought, "This must be God himself."
So he fell down to worship before Him and the messenger says, "No, I’m not
God – I am the messenger of God."
John misunderstood. He made an
error. In fact, John’s error of assuming the angel to be Yahweh is similar to
the churches’ error of assuming that Jesus is Yahweh. However, both were
speaking for Yahweh.
The book of Revelation was a
communication delivered to John by a messenger sent by Jesus (Revelation
22:16), and by the Father (Revelation 21:6). The messenger spoke for both Jesus
and his Father – as if they, themselves, were actually speaking. In that
capacity, the messenger would frequently use phrases like: "I am
the Alpha and Omega," or "I am the first and the
last." These phrases are idiomatic expressions, used in both the
old and new scriptures, to mean "I am without peer"; "I am above
all."
In the book of Revelation, where
this messenger speaks for Jesus, who in turn speaks for Yahweh, some of the
expressions can almost appear to be equating Jesus with Yahweh. But they
aren’t. The messenger speaks for Jesus, but he isn’t Jesus. He also speaks for
Yahweh, but he isn’t Yahweh. He speaks for them both, together.
When he says, "I am the
Alpha and Omega," he is speaking for Yahweh, who authorized him to send
the messenger, who in turn, gives it to John.
Now look at John 8:
Your
father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.
This verse is sometimes used to
suggest that Jesus was Yahweh – at the time of Abraham. But, again, upon fair
consideration, we find that it does not say that. In the first place, it did
not project Jesus back in time. It projects Abraham forward in time – to Jesus’
day. We find help to understand this by looking at Hebrews 11.
Here, we read of faithful
Abraham. In verse 8 it says, "By faith Abraham" –
and then it goes on to explain how Abraham was called out into a new land. In
verse 9 it starts: "By faith he sojourned in the land
of promise…"
Abraham acted upon faith. He is
known as "the father of the faithful." Notice the definition of faith
as it is stated in verse one:
Now
faith is assurance of things expected; contemplation of things not in sight
(corrected according to the Greek text).
Also, Genesis 15:
And
he (Yahweh in a vision) brought him (Abram) forth abroad, and said, Look now
toward heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them: and he said
unto him, So shall thy seed be. And he believed in Yahweh; and he
counted it to him for righteousness.
By faith, Abraham was assured of
things that he expected, and he contemplated things that he hadn’t personally
seen. But Abraham’s faith was not blind! He believed the promise of his God
whom he knew, by personal experience, to be capable of fulfilling promises and
doing the impossible.
In II Corinthians 5:7, we learn that the godly "walk by faith, not by
sight." Abraham didn’t need to physically experience "Jesus’
day" in order to "see" it. Faithful Abraham saw Jesus’ day
– not by sight, but he saw it by faith. By the same
token, verse 10 says: "For he (Abraham) looked for a city which had
foundations, whose builder and maker is God." This was the city of God: New Jerusalem. By
faith, Abraham saw that city that was not yet built. In the same way, Abraham
looked forward by faith and saw the day of Jesus.
Also, in Romans 4:17, Paul
speaks of Abraham’s faith in that God who "calls those things which don’t
exist as though they exist." In other words, through faith God caused
Abraham to see future things that were not yet physically in existence.
Continuing in John 8, we find
another stumbling block:
Jesus
said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. (KJV)
It is sometimes claimed that
Jesus used the term "I am" to show that He was Yahweh and therefore
existed before the time of Abraham. They point to Exodus 3:14, where Yahweh
said his name was "I am that I am" (or more correctly, "I am the
one who exists") and claim that the terms are synonymous. Once again,
however, careful and fair analysis shows otherwise.
As always, we must read
scripture in context. Let’s go back and read from verse 50 to see how Jesus
leads up to this statement:
And
I seek not mine own glory: there is one (another one) that
seeketh and judgeth.
He sought not his own glory,
but rather Yahweh’s – a strange statement if Jesus was Yahweh.
Also, verse 54:
Jesus
answered, If I honor myself, my honor is nothing: it is my Father that honoreth
me;…
Jesus kept shunning the honor
and insisting that it be placed where it belonged – back with the Father,
and away from himself.
Would it make sense in the
earlier parts of the chapter to say, "I don’t deserve the honor; my Father
deserves the honor!" and then turn around in verse 58 and say, "I am
the one who deserves all of the honor?" No! Of course not!
Furthermore, the semantics
involved prove that the term "I am" could not have meant what some
claim. Look at the sentence structure. If "I am" = Yahweh, the verse
would read:
…before Abraham was, Yahweh.
As you can see, it doesn’t work.
Jesus did not say, "Before Abraham was, I was the
"I am. In order to match their claim, the phrase would need more words.
Furthermore, the phrase in
Exodus does not match the one in John when read from the Greek. This clearly
indicates that they have different meanings. John 8:58 reads:
…before
Abraham, I am (EGO EMI) to become (GENESTHAI) (i.e. "I am to become
greater than Abraham").
Here, notice that the verb is
not "was" (past tense), but rather "to be" or "to
become" (infinitive tense). Also, "to become" fits with "I
am" – not with "Abraham" as the churches claim. It reads,
"…I am to become," not "before Abraham to
become…."
Jesus was saying "I am to
be…" in the same sense as you or I would say "I am to
go," or "I am to stay."
The Greek construction bears
this out. Jesus says "EGO EMI" (I am). Now, compare the Greek
construction of Exodus 3:14 as taken from the Septuagint Greek Old Testament.
And
God spoke to Moses, saying EGO EMI HA ON (I am the one
existing); and he said, Thus shall ye say to the children of Israel, HA
ON (the one existing) has sent me to you.
According to Greek usage, if
Jesus had wanted to say that He was "THE EXISTING ONE," He would not
have said "EGO EMI." He would have said "HA ON."
What, then, was Jesus saying in
verse 58? He was stating that He had a position of even greater importance than
Abraham.
…before
Abraham (in priority, or rank), I am to be.
Jesus is greater than Abraham.
In his ministry, his sacrifice and his rising from the dead – in all that He
did, He was the greatest of Yahweh’s creation.

In conclusion: Now
again comes the task of un-brain washing the billions who believe that Jesus
and Yahweh are the same beings. When one reads the original Hebrew and Greek
Bible which; is where the King James Version is translated. Words were changed
and/or miss-translated and people start to believe otherwise words that were
never written or that have different meanings. Understand that, the Judeans of
that biblical time were ready to stone Jesus for claiming he was God himself.
Jesus then explained that he was NOT God and through him God speaks. They then
dropped those stones and Jesus was never stoned to death. The churches today
say what the Judeans were ready to stone him for claiming. The Judeans hate it
when they say Jesus (Yeshua) is, “Yahweh” (God). If one never reads the Hebrew
bible or the Greek bible, then one would never know or understand why the
Christians believe one way and the Judeans another way. If we are to take the
original text from the Hebrew and Greek bible and translate it to English, then
it should be done properly and not to fit one’s own religious belief. Jesus
said it plainly and we ALL should hear his word. That he is NOT “Yahweh” (God)
and he said so.
Way too many cults do this to fit their own agenda and warp
the actual written word of God and his son Jesus.
The written word of God and Jesus are inerrant and
infallible. It only becomes fallible if someone miss-reads the original text
and inserts their own belief and over time billions believe it to be the truth.
I give you the truth as it was originally written. Now take it to heart or wash
it away. The truth has been said.
Blessings,
Dr. Gale Candice Revilla
aka Reverend Mother